Turn on suggestions
Auto-suggest helps you quickly narrow down your search results by suggesting possible matches as you type.
Showing results for
The general journal entry will not post unless a name is added. Here is the message I get.
"Transactions to accounts payable must include a vendor."
An additional note. This is for void check from prior / closed period (year). My general ledger accounts are correct (from posting the void and GJ entries) but it is appearing in my pay bills listing.
I hope I"m clear on this one, but did you post the reversing GJ entries in the current period? If so, that current period reversal (which would also include the vendor name) should be available to be applied to "credit or pay" the bill.
I didn't understand that you were dealing with an A/P transaction. the solution provided was intended for checks posted directly to expense accounts. see my response to your followup explanation.
I have to say you are always the one that makes more sense.
I always get a kick out of people persisting on something instead of being open to listen, and learn.
New way? learn it. New program? learn it.
Your advise is most helpful. I commend you for your patience.
Ana
I read the entire thread and let me see if I understood correctly.
Vendor check. Current year, Current quarter, current month is o.k. click on "void"
Vendor check Prior period. Do the G.Journal entry in the current period. When reconciling click on the check and the j.e. to 0.00
Now. question other checks. Owner wrote a "distribution check" - 2 checks..but changed his mind and deposited only 1. That check in Qbs was never reconciled. This is Prior year.
Is it o.k. to do the j.e. or since this was a check to the "owner-distribution" Is best not to do that and is best for him to deposit it. (Last year date bank probably will not accept it).
I also want to make a comment. Is great that there is a forum to share information. People should not forget to focus in the information and be grateful that someone replies to your question. I have learned just by reading what QBteach shares. Thanks
I try to write in a manner that explains the solution where "one who is reading it thoroughly" will understand. Many people don't seem able to "listen or read" with an open mind as you stated. They are in a confused state but for some reason "confident" that they have the answer when they came here for an answer. It can be trying on one's patience when they keep introducing variables and "assume" that you know what they mean. I find millennials are particularly inclined to argue their position which is often based on a fledgling experience and understanding of the subject matter (part of the "You're special - Here's your trophy" generation). This group also seems to have little regard for those that have significant experience and knowledge. Certainly there are exceptions but they are not in the majority.....
Your understanding on this part is partial - "Vendor check Prior period. Do the G.Journal entry in the current period. When reconciling click on the check and the j.e. to 0.00"
Here is an excerpt from an earlier response in this thread;
"other examples where the check to be voided is recorded in a period where a tax return has been filed. therefore you would not want to VOID a check without an alternate entry to maintain the same account balances in that filed tax period. If you use the Edit Menu Void Check method, then the check remains as a "memo" with a ZERO amount, recording VOID in the memo field is simply a note. This would occur whether you void it in the current period or not. The difference is when the check to be voided is posted in a prior period for which a tax return has been filed. The void would be used but with a general journal entry to record the same entry without the check form. Then that GJ entry is reversed in the current period. That reversal entry in the current period is used to "clear" the earlier GJ entry to the bank account, so that it is no longer outstanding.
understanding of voiding a check from a prior period is missing the following steps:
Hope this clears it up for you.
Thanks for your kind words
Response to your 2nd question:
Now. question other checks. Owner wrote a "distribution check" - 2 checks..but changed his mind and deposited only 1. That check in Qbs was never reconciled. This is Prior year.
Is it o.k. to do the j.e. or since this was a check to the "owner-distribution" Is best not to do that and is best for him to deposit it. (Last year date bank probably will not accept it).
This assumes that the prior year tax return has been filed. If not then I would void the check in the prior period and you are done. He is very likely filing on a "cash basis" so an uncleared check would not be included in the tax calculations.
If the return has been filed then follow the same instructions I provided for voiding a check in a prior period.
This comment is for qbTeach.mt.
When I am trying to resolve an issue or have doubts about what I am about to do I find that the sharing or advise from qbteach.mt and Michelle-Long are the most "make sense" clean and clear advise I can find but I got a bit confused with the comment "Again, Prior Period is the Concern, here. .............For Instance: I can Reprint that original QB check I sent you on a new #, and then enter a write check as a placeholder for the # that is lost and void it. I WOULD NEVER DO THIS AGAINST LAST YEAR'S TAX REPORTING"
This is where I got confused. All over quickbooks community whenever I look for void a check on a prior period this is what says to do. Exactly what you are saying "I would never do this against last year's tax reporting" Now I am confused.
Please clarify. steps for a payroll check "void" within the same period.
steps for one for a prior quarter, & Steps for a Prior year.
For example payroll check issued in 2017 and employee never deposited and now he wants to deposit it in 2020 or payroll check issued in 2015 and now he wants to deposit it in 2020. (still our employee).
With payroll checks we gotta be careful since payroll taxes have been paid and with quarter you already did your quarterly taxes and with year you already sent w2's. I do not want to amend or correct since taxes were paid correctly and all was reported correctly. This is about banking. Reissue the check to the employee so he is able to deposit and I am able to reconcile with out messing up last quarter or last year.
Your prompt reply will BE GREATLY APPRECIATED.
Sorry about the delay. I actually wrote this late last night but when I posted it I received an error message. Did it twice same problem. So here is my response.
I would open the original payroll check in QB and change the check number to the replacement check number, change the date to the date the replacement check is issued (for printing purposes only - then after printing open the check and change the date back to the original date) and note in the Memo Field that this check replaces check number XX and the date on the replacement check. This is not a true VOID but a replacement as the original transaction remains with simply a different check number. This method does not impact the original payroll tax reporting and payments that were made. Use this method to replace a stale dated payroll regardless of whether the replacement takes place in a subsequent tax year or not.
Require The employee to return the original payroll check in exchange for the replacement check. Void the original payroll check and note the replacement check number and date on the check. Enter the voided check in your records if you still maintain hard copy records or scan and shred it if you maintain digital records. When the replacement check appears on the bank statement clear the original check with the replacement check number.
this method will not impact the original payroll records, reports and related tax payments.
This is a completely incorrect solution.
Although I agree with your suggestion IF a replacement checks was/is issued. In my case the check was not re-issued, the EE just never cashed the check. I agree with the deposit suggestion especially since the check should not be voided (as it left the building). They only checks that should be VOIDED are checks never issued, otherwise they should be REVERSED with an appropriate reversal or "stale" date.
That was helpful. What makes it incorrect (In what manner were the accounting records corrupted by my solution)? What’s your solution?
My solution was based upon a situation where a replacement check was issued.
this thread started with a situation where the checks which they wanted to void were issued in a prior period on which Tax returns were filed. A reversal without a general journal substitute entry would change the prior years balance sheet throwing it out of reconciliation with the tax return.
So if in your situation a replacement check was not issued and you believe that checks that left the building should never be voided then why would you be researching a solution where by your definition a problem doesn’t exist?
I don’t accept your premise that only checks that weren’t issued (left the building) can be voided.
Checks that are outstanding beyond a year are frequently voided (following the prior year entries I listed in earlier posts on this thread. Properly done what harm to the accounting records comes from voiding such a check?
If I do this will the uncleared check remain in my uncleared checks list when I reconcile?
I wrote my response over 6 months ago you're going to have to be more descriptive about what "If I do this" means and add some context if you want a response from me. I've invested considerable time already on this topic and I'm not willing to go back through this entire thread to try and figure out what you're asking. if you're referencing a step I mentioned then add a clip of it.
A cheque that is over a year old has not been cashed and the vendor is not reachable. How do I void a cheque from the prior period.
Don't Void it; offset it with a Deposit entry dated current, for whatever you need that will be the reversal of that entry.
It appears to me that you are asking the same question that I answered on Page 2 of this thread dated April 8, 2019. Go to that response and it provides detailed instructions on how to handle the transaction you presented. I have provided multiple responses in this thread covering transactions both in prior periods and current periods. My responses are quite clear and detailed.
Just FYI, the check you want to VOID and can't, will show up on the 1099! I'm having that issue now!
This is addressed in my prior posts in this thread. You’re stepping into a thread which unfortunately has several variant situations. If you want a response then you’ll have to provide context to which variant or situation your transaction apply.
By definition a true VOID is a ZERO transaction and therefore cannot affect 1099’s.
You can "assign" the vendor to the adjustment. That will should the amount reportable under the 1099.
Thank you, I agree.
You are SO right about your comment that QB is not for anyone with accounting/bookkeeping knowledge. And the way to get rid of old cheque is crazy!
And no one at Intuit is an accountant or bookkeeper from the looks of their programs
You have clicked a link to a site outside of the QuickBooks or ProFile Communities. By clicking "Continue", you will leave the community and be taken to that site instead.
For more information visit our Security Center or to report suspicious websites you can contact us here